I think he's trying to claim that it would be limiting to literally only know ASL, and be unable to read and/or write English. Which... is confusing, since that was never mentioned anywhere or brought up previously at all.
Thank you, that was a big favor you did explaining.
Yes, you would be right about the read/write English never being mention but I had to bring it into play for the very reason you explained in your post.
Shel90's point was "oralism is oppression", which to me based on previous post meant that to teach the deaf using oralism-only would be oppression.
ASL-only will do the same thing.