Audiofuzzy
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- Jun 19, 2005
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A deaf person can be very very literate in his/her native language and that native language may not be English. Does that make the deaf person illiterate?
Would you call someone who is fluent and literate in French but doesn't read or write English well, illiterate.
That's what I think hardly any hearing people ever know - that signed language is never spoken or written language,
and this is all the more confusing to the hearies because the words are after all in the same language as the spoken language.
When in ASL the deaf sign "cat" they also say "cat" , when they sign
"I go home" they also say/write "I go home" - so what's the difference?
How do you make hearing people understand why these two languages are as different as English and French?
And you have to, because they don't know that.
Fuzzy