jillio
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I don't know, jillio, I feel like I read somewhere that there's room for interpretation in everything....
Obviously, there is plenty of room for misinterpretation.
I don't know, jillio, I feel like I read somewhere that there's room for interpretation in everything....
Someone who doesn't know or memorize that water acts as a reactant for burning aluminum, should not become promoted for captain or chief IMO.
and also - the administrative responsibility, the people skill, the "connections", and the talking skill. You can be book-smart but if your people skill sucks and you are not well-respected or well-known by many, then you should not be a captain/chief either.
Ahhh...those things that can't be tested with pen and paper.
hence oral interview..... and probably the biggest factor when deciding to pick one among the group.
To choose a minority just to meet the "requirement" or to be "fair" is illegal - in fact... a violation of federal civil law
nope. I have not seen the test. Neither have you. Therefore - you are not right either.It would appear that you are now agreeing that the test, as designed, was a poor way to test for the qualifications necessary for the job.
again - same comment as before.Maybe, maybe not, as the oral interview was a part of the test that has been determined to have problems with validity. And it was not the biggest factor according to the way the items were weighted.
It's what you and daredevil have been preaching about. If the minority has not been picked for captain seat for, say.... 5 years... then you think that the test is flawed and may be racially-biased.This has nothing to do with choosing a minority to meet a requirement. Again, that would fall under Affirmative Action, and this case has nothing to do with Affirmative Action.
nope. I have not seen the test. Neither have you. Therefore - you are not right either.
Who said anything about right? I said "agree".
again - same comment as before.
Yeah, we know.:roll:
It's what you and daredevil have been preaching about. If the minority has not been picked for captain seat for, say.... 5 years... then you think that the test is flawed and may be racially-biased.
It's what you and daredevil have been preaching about. If the minority has not been picked for captain seat for, say.... 5 years... then you think that the test is flawed and may be racially-biased.
It's been awhile since I brushed up on socioeconomics but, isn't this a bit too low of a number to work with? The sample size is n<100 for both the test takers and the promoted.
We also do not know what is the "normal" distribution for promotions, only that this year it wasn't normal to them.
I can understand finding out the standard deviation of test scores of 77 people to find their scores and calculate what it should be, but to look at 77 persons of different races and how they ranked.. hmm?
You're also supposed to calculate a standard error for the mean to verify the validity of the standard deviation.
Another thing if I can add. We don't know who really "passed" the test. This is a crucial factor for determining validity.
We just know:
19 of 19 blacks who took the test did not get a promo.
17 of ?? whites who took the test did not get a promo.
?? of ?? hispanics who took the test did not get a promo.
?? of ?? asians / pacific islanders / native americans / other races
77 of 77 total test takers
14 whites who took the test qualified as passing.
1 hispanic who took the test qualified as passing.
What data isn't available and is probably only available to that FD/SJ, is out of the 62 other test takers, who passed and who didn't. The obviousness is that they chose people out of it, hence the comment "there is only room for 15." But you don't know if they chose 15 of the best test scorers, or if they randomly played lotto and picked whites and a hispanic, or how the dispersion of the scores were done and who was seen as promotable in their eyes.
So if I understand, you would not judge a disparate impact based on percentages of whites or blacks or hispanics that pass, but based on statistical parameters like mean, SD, and skewedness. If so, how close do the means and SDs need to be between different groups? And how Gaussian does the distribution need to look? Is there some standard for that?
I think from what Jiro mentioned earlier if the oral part is failed, that is likely leads to what he mentioned in #223 - if your oral skills suck, "better luck next time". They [the FD] generally want to choose a firefighter that has a charismatic attitude with high people skills in coaching his crewmen, good at leadership decisions, high in constitution, giving his dudes advice, what to do, man to man pep talk etc. Perhaps the whites were better at that, we don't know each and every one of them except guess at the game going on.
You also have to do a standard error for calculating deviation IIRC (if I recall correctly). But I forgot what was the formula for it.
Race might hint at a difference between different ethnicities, but the fact over general oral skills remains that it doesn't matter over the ethnicity, in the end generally organizations will choose over who could do the better job, and then that obviously discriminates the blacks putting them at a disadvantage. That's something that hints at something in this case. Wasn't one of the news articles regarding one of the suing people who was considered Dyslexic?
Now in return to their educationwise due to family poverty and the such. Is it really fair to take their family earnings and education level to match them up and play a fair game somewhere? In my burning aluminum example, it's something you either learned why it does this and why it can explode or you don't know anything and douse it all with water. So if they had horrible education, should things like this be made in exempt for them?
A few pages back, you said that "...the SD would be the same for all races in a valid test." The odds of the SDs being exactly the same are pretty close to 0, so there must be some range of acceptable difference between the SDs. I'm assuming that if the SDs have to be about the same, then the means also should be about the same. Is that a correct assumption? If so, what's the acceptable range of difference there?I think I know what you are trying to say, so I can only say, "Kind of." because the mean is not a statisitical parameter. It is a measure of central tendency. And in this case, the median might be a more accurrate measure of central tendency than the mean would be. Standard deviation is a measure of variability. Skewdness is type of distribution.
Your second question...I have no idea what you are asking. The distribution should approximate a normal distribution irregardless of group. If the distribution skews based on group membership, it is evidence of a bias in the instrument.
A few pages back, you said that "...the SD would be the same for all races in a valid test." The odds of the SDs being exactly the same are pretty close to 0, so there must be some range of acceptable difference between the SDs. I'm assuming that if the SDs have to be about the same, then the means also should be about the same. Is that a correct assumption? If so, what's the acceptable range of difference there?
Here's what I mean by the second question. If you take the mean and standard deviation of the population and throw it into the equation for a Gaussian distribution [f(x)=(population size/(SD*SQRT(2*PI)))*exp(-.5((x-mean)^2/variance))], is there a standard for how close they match up? Because a distribution can look normal to the eye without actually being normal (like a student-t). What if it has two modes? Is it more important that the skewness is close to 0? And what's the standard for how close to 0 it has to be? Because again, the odds that it's exactly 0 are pretty low.
The standard deviation of scores on a normed test is the same for anyone who takes it. That's how it is determined that one is falling outside the acceptable range of scores.
A student t is a converted score. The t score is determined by the z score. The z score is determined by the raw score. T scores and Z scores are simply formulas for raw scores that allows us to see where a score falls on a normal distribution. If all the scores have been plotted, it is obvious whether a distribution falls on a normal curve, or whether the distribution is skewed either positively or negatively. Raw scores are basically useless for determining distribution. That is why they are converted to t-scores and z-scores.
What if it does have 2 modes? That doesn't affect distribution. A normal distribution or a skewed distribution can easily have 2 modes.
A score doesn't need to fall at zero in order to skew a distribution. Few scores fall at exact zero. The far end positively or negatively of any distribution (those scores falling outside 3 SDs) will represent only .5% of any population. A majority of scores falling +/- 2 SDs from the mean will skew a distribution.
The Gaussian curve simply refers to scores plotted on a histogram that will approximate a normal distritubtion. This theory is based on the Quincunx Board developed by Galton, and is based on natural laws of the universe and explained through mathematical laws of probability. It is not a different distribution, but simply another way of demonstrating a normal distribution, and also of explaining why a skewed distibution means one needs to investigate the instrument to determine the reason for the skewness. In any normal distribution, the specific area +1SD to-1SD will include 68% of any population. +2SD to -2SD will include 95% of any population. 99.5% of the population will fall withing 3 SDs of the mean in any normal curve. These percentiles do not change on any normal distribution no matter if it is plotted using a histogram, a scatter plot, or a bell curve.
By the way, technically speaking, mean is indeed a statistical parameter, along with standard deviation and skewness. And skewness is not a type of distribution.
Found this:
New Haven Firefighters File Reverse Discrimination Lawsuit
I can tell that the person who wrote it is a bit angry about the city throwing away the scores, but it has the actual test scores. I thought it was interesting that generally hispanics do better on the written part but not the oral part and blacks do better on the oral part but not the written part......thoughts, anyone?
Found this:
New Haven Firefighters File Reverse Discrimination Lawsuit
I can tell that the person who wrote it is a bit angry about the city throwing away the scores, but it has the actual test scores. I thought it was interesting that generally hispanics do better on the written part but not the oral part and blacks do better on the oral part but not the written part......thoughts, anyone?
again - this doesn't warrant any microscopic analysis or any change. simple - it depends on how the Fire Commission chiefs want it. If they feel a need for book-smart chief, go ahead and pick the one who did well on written part. If they feel the team could use some leadership and pep talk, then pick someone who talks good.