Crack the myth: Reverse Audism does NOT exist.

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Daredevel7 said:
Cliff notes:

Deaf person prejudiced against hearing people: All bark and no bite.

Hearing person prejudiced against deaf people: Lots of barking and a very nasty bite.
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It doesn't help if the hearie is a German shepherd. :P
 
jillio said:
Then as a deaf person, I want to wish you luck. You are going to encounter some problems if you can't recognize audism.
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I do recognize audism, I just don't see it everywhere I look. As I understand it, audism takes malice(to intentionally inflict injury) and just because someone sees a different way to achieve a goal does not mean it is audism.

The guy who beats you up in the school yard; starts a fight with you in a bar; won't hire you because you are deaf is not the same the guy who says you should learn Signed English or participate with hearing children (because you are going to have to deal with them your entire life). There is a difference between the parent who wants you to lip read because nobody else signs and the person who covers his mouth when he talks or purposely looks away.

As far as the technical issues with learning, even Gaulladet is 50% hearing now. And, I'm sure some people would call that audism.

And to get back to the post, there is such a thing as reverse audism and both deaf and hearing people have a responsibility to avoid it.


I'm all for the level playing field, I just wished that happened more often in the real world.
 
I'd like to know the difference between a hearing person who covers their mouth when a deaf person is trying to understand the conversation and a deaf person who refuses to use his lips when a hearing person is trying to view the conversation?

Is this not audism on both sides?
 
jillio said:
Impossible. As you have already shown.
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Impossible?? How can that be?? You, yourself, do reverse audism toward the hearing everyday, a evidence of your posted comments all over AD.
 
VacationGuy234 said:
I'd like to know the difference between a hearing person who covers their mouth when a deaf person is trying to understand the conversation and a deaf person who refuses to use his lips when a hearing person is trying to view the conversation?

Is this not audism on both sides?
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I think the person covering their mouth should finish their yawn or cough before attempting to speak. :giggle:

Seriously though, my father does this all the time. I give up correcting him, but my brother and sisters always jump right in and correct him. This is a form of audism. It's not malicious, it's simply my father not taking into consideration my need to speech read. The reason this is audism is because I have needed to speech read my entire life and he still does not get it despite having been informed many many times. This reflects our society's habits of doing things that reduces our ability to participate.

And, I think we can all agree that excluding someone from general society whether intentional or not is wrong.

As to your question, no, it's not reverse autism. The reason is because the hearing person is not being excluded from society at large. It is simply one deaf person being rude to a hearing person.

If you look at my example of my father covering his mouth, you might think that this is my father being rude. The reason he is not being rude is because this is a socially normal/acceptable behavior. What makes this audism is the fact that he is aware of my communication needs (and can easily accommodate it) yet still blocks his mouth with his hands (even though the blocking was unintentional).
 
rolling7 said:
Impossible?? How can that be?? You, yourself, do reverse audism toward the hearing everyday, a evidence of your posted comments all over AD.
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Rejecting a selective few due to their audist idea and being offended because audist ideas are not being accepted, is protecting the deaf culture from audism. Is not Reverse audism. It is rejecting the audist and audism.
 
I really think Cheetah and BB has hit it....again, it's about societal awareness and interplay, about collective action.

Not the face-value of "some one person did this thing to me"
 
VacationGuy234 said:
I'd like to know the difference between a hearing person who covers their mouth when a deaf person is trying to understand the conversation and a deaf person who refuses to use his lips when a hearing person is trying to view the conversation?

Is this not audism on both sides?
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most hearing people I know can't lipread.
 
the hearing person has the power by virtue of simply being hearing, having multiple avenues for access and communication just as part of day-to-day life.

the deaf person living in an audist society comes into the situation with a lot of mis-perceptions and refusals being put out BY the majority

lack of equity
 
VacationGuy234 said:
As far as the technical issues with learning, even Gaulladet is 50% hearing now. And, I'm sure some people would call that audism.

And to get back to the post, there is such a thing as reverse audism and both deaf and hearing people have a responsibility to avoid it.


I'm all for the level playing field, I just wished that happened more often in the real world.
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give me an example of reverse audism. No one has really come up with one yet.

you call mainstreaming "technical issues"?

If you had a deaf child, would you not think twice about mainstreaming him or her?
 
DeafCaroline said:
give me an example of reverse audism. No one has really come up with one yet.

you call mainstreaming "technical issues"?

If you had a deaf child, would you not think twice about mainstreaming him or her?
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He says "technical issues"?? :shock: It's more accurately not understanding how deafnes impacts the deaf's child ability to understand the world around him. FMs, HAs and CIs aren't going to be enough. :P
 
DeafCaroline said:
give me an example of reverse audism. No one has really come up with one yet.
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I just did here below \/\/:

"I'd like to know the difference between a hearing person who covers their mouth when a deaf person is trying to understand the conversation and a deaf person who refuses to use his lips when a hearing person is trying to view the conversation?

Is this not audism on both sides?"

But, nobody has answered the question...
 
Babyblue said:
Rejecting a selective few due to their audist idea and being offended because audist ideas are not being accepted, is protecting the deaf culture from audism. Is not Reverse audism. It is rejecting the audist and audism.
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What if there is no Audism present, yet someone yells from the roof-tops that the person is in fact Audist? What then?

Don't you think that does more harm than good? I'm not talking about when a person makes a statement that is in fact Audist, I'm talking about when they're not...
 
VacationGuy234 said:
I just did here below \/\/:

"I'd like to know the difference between a hearing person who covers their mouth when a deaf person is trying to understand the conversation and a deaf person who refuses to use his lips when a hearing person is trying to view the conversation?

Is this not audism on both sides?"

But, nobody has answered the question...

I'm guessing you are reading lips subconsciously. I certainly do it subconsciously.
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Of course I lipread - whether unconsciously or not, it's the only way I can understand any of what hearing people say.

I didn't answer that question because, frankly, it's silly. How common is it for a deaf person to intentionally not move their lips for sake of making hard for the hearing person to lipread them? Is that the only example of reverse audism you can think of? Reverse audism would be the belief deafness and ASL is superior to hearing and speaking and thus treating the hearing world as inferior through acts of discrimination like not sending their hearing child to a hearing school. (never heard of deaf parents doing that either but definitely heard of plenty of hearing parents refusing to send their deaf child to a deaf school).

Audism is not restricted to intentional malice - it's, simply put, discrimination and failure to accomodate the deaf (i.e. mainstreaming instead of placing the child in a deaf school), it's the belief that a person who can hear and speak is superior to one who can't.

Canadian Hearing Society wrote a paper about it, from which I quote:
"Audism (Ô diz m) n.
1. The notion that one is superior based on one’s ability to hear or behave in the manner of one who hears.
2. A system of advantage based on hearing ability
3. A metaphysical orientation that links human identity with speech."

You can read their paper here: Welcome to The Canadian Hearing Society
 
VacationGuy234 said:
I just did here below \/\/:

"I'd like to know the difference between a hearing person who covers their mouth when a deaf person is trying to understand the conversation and a deaf person who refuses to use his lips when a hearing person is trying to view the conversation?

Is this not audism on both sides?"

But, nobody has answered the question...
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I did answer the question. I even explained why this is not an example of "reverse audism".
 
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