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There's an argument in linguistic circles that standard written English and spoken English can each be considered a distinct language in itself, not requiring a conjoined spoken or written mode to fulfill all requirements of being a language. These arguments for spoken and written English to be considered distinct languages are based on the significant difference in grammars, in both morphology and syntax -- something that sets English apart from other Western languages.
I thought that argument was the basis for considering someone bilingual if he or she has fluency in stand-alone written English + ASL (or, conversely, fluency in spoken English + ASL).
Based on that, it seems like if you consider written English + ASL = bilingual, adding spoken English to the mix would make you trilingual.
How if the person knows only two languages?
Most people get the modes of communication confused with the actual languages themselves.