Whats the reason behind some people with profound loss (cochlear hair damage) that have usable hearing and other people with same type and amount of loss don't have usable hearing??
Why does it vary so much?
Whats the reason behind some people with profound loss (cochlear hair damage) that have usable hearing and other people with same type and amount of loss don't have usable hearing??
Why does it vary so much?
Whats the reason behind some people with profound loss (cochlear hair damage) that have usable hearing and other people with same type and amount of loss don't have usable hearing??
Why does it vary so much?
It is about 'frequencies' and the irregular decay of the cochlear hairs. When My hearing was going 1 minute I would hear something the next half a sentence would have gone, so deaf one minute partial hearing the next, SN loss can drag on for years and very debilitating and you get no sympathy at all because this type of loss leads to the "He is only deaf when he wants to be.." jibes, really we have no control over what we can or cannot hear. It was a partial blessing when it all went, no more confusion. SN loss is entirely unpredictable, however some SN loss takes a long time to decay hence why some hear a lot longer.
Sn= sensorineural hearing loss
Whats the reason behind some people with profound loss (cochlear hair damage) that have usable hearing and other people with same type and amount of loss don't have usable hearing??
Why does it vary so much?
I wonder why myself. Each ear is crappy in of themselves, being profoundly deaf, but put both hearing aids on, and it's a major difference. I play music, and I work in retail on the floor as a salesperson. I have always been deaf.
Whats the reason behind some people with profound loss (cochlear hair damage) that have usable hearing and other people with same type and amount of loss don't have usable hearing??
Why does it vary so much?
Whats the reason behind some people with profound loss (cochlear hair damage) that have usable hearing and other people with same type and amount of loss don't have usable hearing??
Why does it vary so much?