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Correct me here, but wasnt the KJV based on the textus receptus and the Bishops among others? The Vatinican was discovered around 1400 and not used for the bulk of the KJV as it is currently called.
The KJV was the third English translation done about 1604 to 1611. This was begun by King James convening the Hampton Court conference. This was done because the Geneva bible did not meet the needs of the new Puritan movement. However, King James gave strict orders to the translators that the texts would strictly conform to the ecclisiology of the Church of England. Using the aforementioned texts, the translators were allowed to consult a list of approved texts for clarification. I am thinking that the Geneva bible, the Taverners bible and the Great Bible were on the "approved" list. (perhaps a couple of others?)
I have derailed my own thread. Argh. If allowed by the moderators, I would like to take this topic to it's own thread, yet it is deadly close to religion rather than textual history.
BTW, our preacher cannot discuss these topics with me and believes in the infallibility of the KJV and does not recognize prior texts or textual history of the bible and has never studied any of the Aramaic Papyri. ech.
The idea of some of the original texts was that each symbol was both a number and a "letter". The texts could be read both from the left and right. The numbers had meanings and each letter had meanings. Therefore each "word" had multiple meanings and was generally used for meditation and certainly not to be taken literally. For example, In The Beginning... has hundreds of rabinical translations. The "reading" was to be allegorical and not literal. So the readings or meanings could be true on multiple levels simultaneously. Hence, I am of the opinion that a literal interpretation of the original Aramaic brings discredit. Each literal translation takes you further away, rather like the child's game of "rumors". I also agree that some aspects of Protestantism fueled literalism.
This is just history, not dogma. Please readers, do not be offended.
The KJV was the third English translation done about 1604 to 1611. This was begun by King James convening the Hampton Court conference. This was done because the Geneva bible did not meet the needs of the new Puritan movement. However, King James gave strict orders to the translators that the texts would strictly conform to the ecclisiology of the Church of England. Using the aforementioned texts, the translators were allowed to consult a list of approved texts for clarification. I am thinking that the Geneva bible, the Taverners bible and the Great Bible were on the "approved" list. (perhaps a couple of others?)
I have derailed my own thread. Argh. If allowed by the moderators, I would like to take this topic to it's own thread, yet it is deadly close to religion rather than textual history.
BTW, our preacher cannot discuss these topics with me and believes in the infallibility of the KJV and does not recognize prior texts or textual history of the bible and has never studied any of the Aramaic Papyri. ech.
The idea of some of the original texts was that each symbol was both a number and a "letter". The texts could be read both from the left and right. The numbers had meanings and each letter had meanings. Therefore each "word" had multiple meanings and was generally used for meditation and certainly not to be taken literally. For example, In The Beginning... has hundreds of rabinical translations. The "reading" was to be allegorical and not literal. So the readings or meanings could be true on multiple levels simultaneously. Hence, I am of the opinion that a literal interpretation of the original Aramaic brings discredit. Each literal translation takes you further away, rather like the child's game of "rumors". I also agree that some aspects of Protestantism fueled literalism.
This is just history, not dogma. Please readers, do not be offended.