Also, that the Titanic ship, itself, was pretty well insured (for ~$5,567,000, compared to its ~$8,000,000 cost to build). So it appears that the owners were mostly compensated for its ship loss). Also, that all suits were settled “out of court”. Also, I have read that the highest settlement-payment to a victim, suing in the U.S., was for ~$5000, (perhaps for the death of some ‘important’ American?). But I don’t know how history can be sure of any single high limit, because of subtleties occurring or done in the world. But anyway, ~$5000 might have bought ~10,000 ounces of silver (or ~250 ounces of gold) in those days, so it would not be a trivial amount of money today. If each of the ~1,513 victims (i.e., “estates” or etc.) had received about that much, then the total amount paid to victims would have totaled about the value of the ship. Even assuming the previous statement; it may still seem to some readers--that the victims would have still been “under-compensated”, (especially assuming that great recklessness was involved). But it seems to me, still, that the compensation, then, would not have been trivial (i.e., if it would have been equal to the value of the ship).
