AlleyCat
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Yes, but it is still considered an acquired etiology, because it is not coming from the fetus's own genetic make up. Most of us think of acquired loss as that coming after birth, which is correct. This is not dependent upon the time the loss occurred, but rather the reason for the loss itself. So they are using "acquired" in a different context than we usually see it used in relation to hearing loss.
That does make perfect sense.