I could go either way with it, but I do believe living immediate family should get something(barring a will that says otherwise) if someone is going to profit from another person's work, as is, why should they get it for free?
Perhaps, although I should mention that the author died in 1930, and all of his children are now dead. So it's likely that his grandchildren and great-grandchildren are in charge of the estate. However, the people of the estate did not create the works in the first place, so why should they be entitled to it?
That's why I think it should be in the public domain following the artist's death with a maximum of 50 years of waiting period. That's how it was done before, but they changed that.