This topic has been beaten to hell and back, I'm sure. I also fully expect to get flamed like never before.
Having said that, let me begin.
Many people who have a congenital deafness of a substantial amount do not achieve a full integration in the oral society. If they are able to communicate orally, the communication is usually done at a level of pre-4th grade grammar. For whatever reason, this grammar seems to translate onto AllDeaf.com. I understand the difficulty of human speech, but does this difficulty really translate to a completly textual form of communication?
I'm not going to call anyone out on this, but I have seen examples of fragments, run on sentences, tautology, among many other English grammar violations. I understand that this is an informal method of communication, but some of the things I have seen on here have made the sentences indecipherable and unreadable without (and in some cases, with) context. My question to you is why?
If one went to a deaf school, surely, they would teach proper English and grammar in a textual way. Even at hearing schools these things are taught in a textual manner. Does being deaf discourage people from learning the English language? Does being Deaf discourage people from learning the English language? What reduces the quality of textual communication?
I know someone will say to me: "How can you say this? You can't possibly know how hard this comes to us."
My response is this:
I know exactly how hard this comes to everyone. I am in the exact situation that I describe, a congenital hearing impairment of severe-profound loss. I am aided by hearing aids and nothing else. I go to an all hearing school and am at the top of my class in AP English. If anyone wants to contest me as a hypocrite, go right ahead. I'm sure that I will have a proper counterargument for whatever trial you put before me.
I don't intend to cause an uprising, nor do I intend to hurt anyone's feelings. I just want to know why.
TL;DR: Why do congenital deaf people generally have bad grammar?
Having said that, let me begin.
Many people who have a congenital deafness of a substantial amount do not achieve a full integration in the oral society. If they are able to communicate orally, the communication is usually done at a level of pre-4th grade grammar. For whatever reason, this grammar seems to translate onto AllDeaf.com. I understand the difficulty of human speech, but does this difficulty really translate to a completly textual form of communication?
I'm not going to call anyone out on this, but I have seen examples of fragments, run on sentences, tautology, among many other English grammar violations. I understand that this is an informal method of communication, but some of the things I have seen on here have made the sentences indecipherable and unreadable without (and in some cases, with) context. My question to you is why?
If one went to a deaf school, surely, they would teach proper English and grammar in a textual way. Even at hearing schools these things are taught in a textual manner. Does being deaf discourage people from learning the English language? Does being Deaf discourage people from learning the English language? What reduces the quality of textual communication?
I know someone will say to me: "How can you say this? You can't possibly know how hard this comes to us."
My response is this:
I know exactly how hard this comes to everyone. I am in the exact situation that I describe, a congenital hearing impairment of severe-profound loss. I am aided by hearing aids and nothing else. I go to an all hearing school and am at the top of my class in AP English. If anyone wants to contest me as a hypocrite, go right ahead. I'm sure that I will have a proper counterargument for whatever trial you put before me.
I don't intend to cause an uprising, nor do I intend to hurt anyone's feelings. I just want to know why.
TL;DR: Why do congenital deaf people generally have bad grammar?