NightwarriorJin
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- Jun 10, 2004
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Okay, there is a situtation that happened few days ago that caused me to ask for your opinion (both deafies and hearing). I wanted to know if what I am feeling is "deaf common" or that its biased.
We were in a car, there is 3 deafies and 1 hearing. Two deafies sitting front and one hearies/one deafies sitting in the back. ALL (including hearing) know sign language. On the way to a place, two that sit in the back (remember, both deaf and hearing) decided that they want to do a private conversation, so they communicate to each other by whisper with their hand covering the mouth. I was disturbed by that. So after we dropped that hearing person off and come home. We parked a couple of block away from home because of the stupid parking rules, anyway... On way walking home, I expressed my feeling, and the deaf that whisper was like "This is a private conversion, I can do whatever I can do to keep it private, even if be done via verbal." I was like, you knew sign language, and the hearing person knew sign language, it needed to be treated as it is a deaf enivorment, like if you want to talk private, do it where people dont see you guys.
So i give you two perspective:
Their- Within the boundary of the word "private" meaning that whatsoever information was being carried between 2 individuals is their business only. Meaning that whatever mode of conversation (talking or signing) is up to them and should not offend any culture since it is secret.
My- In a deaf environment, regardless of their mode of conversation (suppose that all knew sign language) they are required to use sign language although they could sign small or talk to each other in a different room if want to done privately. By doing this, would ensure respect for the deaf community.
Thanks for reading and please reply!
NW
We were in a car, there is 3 deafies and 1 hearing. Two deafies sitting front and one hearies/one deafies sitting in the back. ALL (including hearing) know sign language. On the way to a place, two that sit in the back (remember, both deaf and hearing) decided that they want to do a private conversation, so they communicate to each other by whisper with their hand covering the mouth. I was disturbed by that. So after we dropped that hearing person off and come home. We parked a couple of block away from home because of the stupid parking rules, anyway... On way walking home, I expressed my feeling, and the deaf that whisper was like "This is a private conversion, I can do whatever I can do to keep it private, even if be done via verbal." I was like, you knew sign language, and the hearing person knew sign language, it needed to be treated as it is a deaf enivorment, like if you want to talk private, do it where people dont see you guys.
So i give you two perspective:
Their- Within the boundary of the word "private" meaning that whatsoever information was being carried between 2 individuals is their business only. Meaning that whatever mode of conversation (talking or signing) is up to them and should not offend any culture since it is secret.
My- In a deaf environment, regardless of their mode of conversation (suppose that all knew sign language) they are required to use sign language although they could sign small or talk to each other in a different room if want to done privately. By doing this, would ensure respect for the deaf community.
Thanks for reading and please reply!
NW