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Do I have the right to refuse to use spoken english and resort to only sign langauge and writing on paper even though I am fully capable of communicating verbally?I've been looking all over trying to find the answers, but I have no clue.
Do I have the right to refuse to use spoken english and resort to only sign langauge and writing on paper even though I am fully capable of communicating verbally?
I've been looking all over trying to find the answers, but I have no clue.
